Invitation To The Life Span 3rd Edition By Kathleen Stassen Berger – Test Bank
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Sample
Questions
A psychologist who hides a toy under a blanket to see if an
infant will try to uncover it wants to see if the child understands
_____.
65. If a toddler sees an object hidden first in one place, and then in another,
he or she will continue to search in the first place.
This error is known as _____.
66. Noting that children between 12 and 18 months of age engage in extensive
experimentation and exploration, Piaget described
the toddler of this age as the _____.
67. In the final stage of sensorimotor intelligence, toddlers begin to
anticipate and solve simple problems by using _____
combinations.
68. A sequence in which an infant first perceives something done by someone
else and then performs the same action hours or
even days later is called _____.
69. The perspective of cognition modeled on computer functioning is called
_____ theory.
70. Research with 3-month-old infants demonstrates that _____ can help a baby
to recollect an idea, thing, or experience without
necessarily testing whether he or she remembers it at the moment.
71. Compared with ordinary speech, child-directed speech has a _____ pitch.
72. The distinct form of language used by adults to communicate with babies is
called baby talk, motherese, or _____.
73. Baby talk and _____ are referred to as child-directed speech by scientists.
74. An infant’s repetition of syllables such as “ba-ba” is called _____.
75. A single-word utterance that expresses a complete thought is called a
_____.
76. When a 21-month-old begins to utter two-word combinations, it is apparent
that the toddler has begun to comprehend _____
concepts.
77. The initials LAD stand for _____, a mental structure proposed by Chomsky as
an explanation for infants’ ability to learn to
speak.
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78. Infants usually triple their birth weight by the end of
their first year.
A) True
B) False
79. The average American newborn weighs about 8 pounds.
A) True
B) False
80. Between 12 and 24 months, infant growth is generally slower than it was in
the first year.
A) True
B) False
81. Most 2-year-olds weigh almost 28 pounds.
A) True
B) False
82. The speed of physical growth in the first year is continued during the
second year.
A) True
B) False
83. Two-year-olds are about 20 percent of their adult weight.
A) True
B) False
84. The typical newborn sleeps about 15 to 17 hours out of 24.
A) True
B) False
85. The circumference of the brain increases to three times its size in the
first year of life.
A) True
B) False
86. Dendrite growth is the major reason that brain weight triples in the first
two years.
A) True
B) False
87. The last part of the brain to develop is the prefrontal cortex.
A) True
B) False
88. Axons and dendrites intersect at a synapse.
A) True
B) False
89. At birth, the brain contains more than 100 trillion neurons.
A) True
B) False
90. The temporary increase in the number of dendrites in the first two years of
life is known as transient exuberance.
A) True
B) False
91. Pruning neural connections improves neural communication and increases
thinking ability.
A) True
B) False
92. Infants require toys that make noise, play music, beep, and sing in order
for their brains to develop adequately.
A) True
B) False
93. Shaking a baby causes neural connections to break and ruptures blood
vessels in the brain.
A) True
B) False
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94. Sensation begins when an outer sense organ detects an
incoming stimulus.
A) True
B) False
95. For sensation to occur, one must be able to understand and comprehend the
incoming stimuli.
A) True
B) False
96. Perception takes place in the corpus callosum.
A) True
B) False
97. Perception requires experience in addition to normal brain functioning.
A) True
B) False
98. Eli is 6 months old. He slaps the water repeatedly each time he is in the
bathtub, squealing as the water splashes. His
tendency to continue splashing water demonstrates his sensation and his attempt
to make sense of it.
A) True
B) False
99. Newborns are especially responsive to rhythmic sounds such as lullabies.
A) True
B) False
100. In a newborn, vision is not as well developed as hearing.
A) True
B) False
101. Binocular vision is the ability to focus both eyes in a coordinated manner
in order to see one image.
A) True
B) False
102. Some herbs and plants contain natural substances that are medicinal, and
thus the foods a particular culture eats may aid
human survival.
A) True
B) False
103. The food enjoyed in different cultures may aid in human survival.
A) True
B) False
104. The five senses serve no purpose in comforting infants.
A) True
B) False
105. It has been proven that infants feel as much pain as adults.
A) True
B) False
106. Motor skills are used to control actions.
A) True
B) False
107. A child who begins walking independently at 12 months is close to the
average age for accomplishing this skill.
A) True
B) False
108. An example of a fine motor skill is transferring objects from one hand to
the other.
A) True
B) False
109. Henry is demonstrating his gross motor skills when he picks up Cheerios
from his high-chair tray.
A) True
B) False
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110. It is probable that as many as 4 billion children born
between the years 1950 and 2015 would have died without the
institution of public health practices.
A) True
B) False
111. Immunizations are useful in protecting children from diseases but not from
the serious complications that result from
childhood illness.
A) True
B) False
112. The fats and sugars used in formula make it more digestible than breast
milk.
A) True
B) False
113. Stunting is a disease directly caused by malnutrition.
A) True
B) False
114. The child’s abdomen typically swells with fluid with the disease called
kwashiorkor.
A) True
B) False
115. There are five stages of sensorimotor intelligence.
A) True
B) False
116. According to Piaget, the period of sensorimotor intelligence comes to an
end shortly after the first birthday.
A) True
B) False
117. One of the first acquired adaptations is an accommodation of reflexes—for
example, the reflexes involved in sucking a
pacifier.
A) True
B) False
118. A baby in Piaget’s stage three of sensorimotor intelligence will attempt
to make interesting events last.
A) True
B) False
119. Babies in the fourth stage of sensorimotor intelligence work to achieve
their goals.
A) True
B) False
120. The fourth stage of Piaget’s sensorimotor intelligence is often referred
to as ends to the means.
A) True
B) False
121. By 8 months of age, infants have an understanding of object permanence.
A) True
B) False
122. Eighteen-month-old babies display object permanence, but they also display
the A-not-B error.
A) True
B) False
123. The stage of tertiary circular reactions is when infants begin
experimenting with thought and deed.
A) True
B) False
124. A toddler in stage five of sensorimotor intelligence is a “little
scientist.”
A) True
B) False
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125. Babies in the stage of tertiary circular reactions explore
the world, actively experimenting on their environment.
A) True
B) False
126. Babies are unable to use their imaginations after completing each of
Piaget’s six stages of sensorimotor development.
A) True
B) False
127. Deferred imitation is a kind of memory infants begin to exhibit at about
18 to 24 months of age.
A) True
B) False
128. Piaget’s theory has been criticized for being based on too large of a
sample.
A) True
B) False
129. New methods of measuring infant brain activity have provided excellent
support for Piaget’s theories about the timing of
infant cognitive skill acquisition.
A) True
B) False
130. Reminders can prolong a young infant’s memory of earlier events.
A) True
B) False
131. The sequence in which language development occurs depends on which
language is spoken.
A) True
B) False
132. The sequence of early language development is universal.
A) True
B) False
133. Baby talk refers to the sounds made by babies and imitated by parents in
the first few weeks after birth.
A) True
B) False
134. Babies whose caregivers use child-directed speech learn language more
slowly than babies whose caregivers use adult
patterns in their speech.
A) True
B) False
135. Preverbal infants show a preference for child-directed over ordinary adult
speech.
A) True
B) False
136. A child’s first word combinations—for example, “More cookie” or “My
toy”—are called holophrases.
A) True
B) False
137. One word used to express a complete thought is a holophrase.
A) True
B) False
138. The first two-word sentence appears between 18 and 24 months of age.
A) True
B) False
139. A child’s proper use of grammar becomes obvious when he or she begins to
produce holophrases.
A) True
B) False
140. According to Skinner, a grandfather who smiles whenever the baby says
“pa-pa” is providing reinforcement for talking.
A) True
B) False
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141. Reading to infants has no effect on their language learning
because they do not understand most words used in children’s
books.
A) True
B) False
142. According to Skinner, toddlers with smaller vocabularies have parents who
do not talk to them very much.
A) True
B) False
143. Language acquisition device is Chomsky’s term for the infant’s inborn
ability to learn language.
A) True
B) False
144. Chomsky argued that babies are born to learn language.
A) True
B) False
145. A typical child at 24 months weighs about _____ pounds.
A) 19
B) 28
C) 41
D) 52
146. The average North American newborn weighs _____ pounds at birth.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
147. The average newborn triples his weight by _____.
A) 6 months
B) 9 months
C) 1 year
D) 2 years
148. Children reach half their adult height by the age of _____ years.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
149. Clara’s weight is in the 30th percentile. This means that _____ percent of
all babies her age weigh less than she does and
_____ percent of all babies her age weigh more than she does.
A) 30; 70
B) 20; 80
C) 70; 30
D) 80; 20
150. Jordan’s weight is in the 50th percentile. This means that _____.
A) he weighs 50 percent more than other children his age
B) he weighs 50 percent less than other children his age
C) the average weight for his age is 50 percent more than his weight
D) 50 percent of children his age weigh less than he does
151. A _____ is a ranking between 0 and 100 that compares children of the same
age in order to determine whether a particular
baby is growing well.
A) normal score
B) standard deviation
C) percentile
D) norm
152. Alma brought her 6-month-old son to the doctor for a well-baby visit. The
doctor says that her son’s weight is in the 20th
percentile. What does this mean?
A) He is large for his age.
B) He is not growing properly.
C) He is malnourished.
D) He is small compared with other 6-month-olds.
Page 8
153. Parents are told that their newborn is in the 90th
percentile for height. This means that their child is _____.
A) above average in height.
B) below average in height.
C) average in height.
D) 90 percent of the desired height for his weight.
154. Approximately how many hours per day does the average newborn spend
asleep?
A) 13 to 14
B) 15 to 17
C) 18 to 19
D) 20 to 21
155. The dozing, half-awake state often seen in newborns is called _____.
A) REM sleep
B) paradoxical sleep
C) transitional sleep
D) postnatal sleep
156. Slow-wave sleep _____.
A) increases markedly at about 3 or 4 months of age
B) is also known as REM sleep
C) is also known as paradoxical sleep
D) rarely occurs until 2 years of age
157. The signs of REM sleep include flickering of the infant’s _____.
A) open eyes and rapid brain waves
B) closed eyes and rapid brain waves
C) open eyes and slow, steady brain waves
D) closed eyes and slow, steady brain waves
158. In addition to cultural influences, what is a compelling reason for
parents to co-sleep with their infant?
A) Co-sleeping makes nighttime feedings easier.
B) Co-sleeping allows the infant to sleep more deeply for longer periods.
C) Co-sleeping helps the baby’s digestion.
D) Co-sleeping infants become more independent.
159. Twelve-month-old Emily has slept in her parents’ bed since she was born.
This custom is called _____.
A) co-bedding
B) shared sleep
C) sleep accommodation
D) co-sleeping
160. The human body is equipped to protect the brain when malnutrition
temporarily affects body growth. This protective feature
is known as _____.
A) the blood-brain barrier
B) brain-override
C) head-sparing
D) caudal protection
161. A newborn’s brain weight is _____ an adult’s brain weight.
A) greater than
B) the same as
C) 50 percent of
D) 25 percent of
162. Brain cells are called _____.
A) frontal cells
B) axons
C) dendrites
D) neurons
163. A basic nerve cell in the central nervous system is called a(n) _____.
A) frontal cell
B) axon
C) dendrite
D) neuron
Page 9
164. At birth, the human brain has _____.
A) billions of neurons
B) trillions of neurons
C) 25 percent of its adult neurons
D) 50 percent of its adult neurons
165. The outer layers of the brain are referred to as _____.
A) the cortex
B) axons
C) dendrites
D) synapses
166. Which statement describes the brain’s cortex?
A) It is found in the center of the brain and is responsible for primitive
emotions and reflexes.
B) It makes up a small percentage of the outer brain and is responsible for
movement.
C) It makes up the outer layers of the brain and is responsible for thinking,
feeling, and sensing.
D) It is the gray matter of the brain where the intersections of dendrites and
axons form.
167. The area of the cortex at the front of the brain _____.
A) is responsible for visual functions
B) helps humans to understand spoken words
C) assists with impulse control
D) is well-developed in newborns
168. The last part of the brain to mature is the _____.
A) axons
B) dendrites
C) synapses
D) prefrontal cortex
169. The area in the brain that plans, anticipates, and controls impulses is
the _____ cortex.
A) prefrontal
B) parietal
C) temporal
D) striate
170. Neurons in the brain meet at “intersections” called _____.
A) synapses
B) cortexes
C) axons
D) dendrites
171. Synapses are _____.
A) intersections where the axons of one neuron meet the dendrites of another
neuron
B) where neurons make direct contact with one another
C) chemical structures that allow dendrites to send their messages to axons
D) the area where neurons determine whether a stimulus exceeds the absolute
threshold or not
172. The function of neurotransmitters is to _____.
A) bind the neurons of the central nervous system together
B) form the synapse between neurons
C) carry information from one neuron to another
D) assist in the formation of new neurons
173. Dendrite growth is the main reason that brain weight _____ from birth to
age 2.
A) decreases
B) doubles
C) triples
D) quadruples
174. Brain weight triples during the first two years of life primarily because
of the growth of _____.
A) axons
B) dendrites
C) neurons
D) synapses
Page 10
175. From birth until age 2, dendrites in the cortex increase
_____.
A) twofold
B) threefold
C) fivefold
D) tenfold
176. The brain develops extremely quickly in the first few years, but not all
of this growth is permanent. Because it is rapid and
temporary, this brain growth is called _____.
A) dendrite proliferation
B) pruning
C) cortex multiplication
D) transient exuberance
177. Transient exuberance is the _____.
A) rapid growth of dendrites during the first few years of life
B) high energy that toddlers experience following a nap
C) friendliness that infants display prior to the onset of stranger wariness
D) rapid growth of axons during the first few years of life
178. The process through which unused dendrites atrophy and die is called
_____.
A) pruning
B) degeneration
C) transitional exuberance
D) myelination
179. Pruning is the process by which _____.
A) brain centers are rewired following localized brain damage
B) the left hemisphere specializes for language processing
C) the frontal lobe disengages from the prefrontal cortex
D) unused connections between neurons are eliminated
180. According to research, the ability to think clearly is most likely
increased as a result of _____.
A) transient exuberance
B) synaptic regeneration
C) axon pruning
D) dendrite pruning
181. Brain functions that require certain basic common experiences in order to
develop normally are called _____.
A) experience-expectant
B) transient exuberance
C) experience-dependent
D) pruning
182. Brain functions that depend on particular, variable experiences and
therefore may or may not develop in a particular infant
are called _____.
A) experience-expectant
B) transient exuberance
C) experience-dependent
D) pruning
183. A life-threatening condition that occurs when infants are shaken back and
forth sharply and quickly is called _____.
A) pruning
B) head-sparing
C) shaken baby syndrome
D) transient exuberance
184. An abusive caregiver shakes an infant to get her to stop crying. The
infant stops crying. Why?
A) The infant is so startled by the shaking that she can’t cry.
B) Blood vessels in her brain rupture and neural connections break.
C) Experience has taught her to stop crying.
D) The infant’s airway is damaged.
185. The process by which an external stimulus is first detected is _____.
A) perception
B) sensation
C) interpretation
D) cognition
Page 11
186. Whenever the eyes, ears, tongue, skin, or mouth detect a
stimulus, _____ has occurred.
A) perception
B) interpretation
C) sensation
D) response
187. You see a beautiful yellow flower while walking through a meadow. Your
eyes seeing the flower is a matter of _____. Your
brain determining that the flower is yellow is a matter of _____. Imagining how
the flower will look in a vase would
demonstrate _____.
A) perception; knowing; cognition
B) sensation; perception; knowing
C) perception; sensation; knowing
D) sensation; perception; cognition
188. The mental processing of sensory information is called _____.
A) perception
B) sensation
C) input
D) cognition
189. Thinking about something that has been perceived is _____.
A) sensation
B) cognition
C) intuition
D) knowing
190. At what point in development is the sense of hearing already quite acute?
A) at birth
B) by 3 months of age
C) by 14 weeks of age
D) by 6 months of age
191. In terms of visual acuity, newborns _____.
A) possess 20/20 vision
B) are legally blind
C) have binocular vision
D) exhibit organized visual scanning
192. The sense that is the least functional at birth is an infant’s _____.
A) hearing
B) taste
C) vision
D) smell
193. By 3 months of age, babies look closely at the eyes and mouth when
studying faces. This change in focus is due to _____.
A) increased interest in other humans
B) increased awareness of caregivers’ identities
C) changes in willingness to interact with adults
D) improvements in visual scanning ability
194. Binocular vision refers to the ability to _____.
A) focus on objects at a distance
B) bring an object in and out of focus
C) focus on an object with both eyes
D) visually distinguish between similar colors
195. Binocular vision appears between _____ months of age.
A) 2 and 4
B) 6 and 8
C) 10 and 12
D) 14 and 16
196. Due to smell recognition, babies prefer to sleep _____.
A) alone in a crib with freshly washed sheets
B) nuzzled into their caregiver’s chest
C) near a kitchen while food is being prepared
D) in the room in which they were born
Page 12
197. Newborns’ sense of touch allows them to _____.
A) determine who is touching them
B) be comforted by their caregiver
C) feel no pain
D) make up for their lack of hearing at birth
198. The ability to move some parts of the body is referred to as _____.
A) instinct
B) facilitation
C) motor skill
D) reflex
199. When a newborn’s feet are stroked, the toes fan upward; this is a _____
reflex.
A) Babinski
B) stepping
C) swimming
D) Moro
200. When newborns are held upright, feet touching a flat surface, they move
their legs as if to walk; this is a _____ reflex.
A) Babinski
B) stepping
C) swimming
D) Moro
201. When newborns are held horizontally on their stomachs, they stretch out
their arms and legs; this is a _____ reflex.
A) Babinski
B) stepping
C) swimming
D) Moro
202. Gross motor skills are _____.
A) head motions
B) small movements
C) large movements
D) feet motions
203. Gross motor skills emerge directly from reflexes and proceed in a _____
and proximodistal direction.
A) holophrase
B) cephalocaudal
C) marasmus
D) experience-expectant
204. Gross motor skills emerge directly from reflexes and proceed in a
cephalocaudal and _____ direction.
A) holophrase
B) proximodistal
C) marasmus
D) experience-expectant
205. Large movements that use many parts of the body are known as _____ motor
skills.
A) athletic
B) fine
C) primitive
D) gross
206. An example of a gross motor skill is _____.
A) painting a picture
B) dialing a phone
C) picking up a bug
D) hopping on one foot
207. Younger children tend to be better at playing kickball than they are at
playing baseball. That’s because all aspects of kickball
rely more heavily on _____.
A) fine motor skills
B) gross motor skills
C) lateralization
D) limbic system development
Page 13
208. Writing your name is a _____, whereas kicking a ball is
a(n) _____.
A) sensorimotor skill; preoperational skill
B) physical skill; cognitive skill
C) coordination skill; inter-coordination skill
D) fine motor skill; gross motor skill
209. Most infants are able to inch forward on their bellies by the age of _____
months.
A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
210. On average, children begin to walk well at approximately _____ of age.
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 18 months
D) 2 years
211. Between _____ months of age, most infants can lift their midsections and
crawl on “all fours.”
A) 8 and 10
B) 10 and 12
C) 12 and 14
D) 14 and 16
212. By _____ months of age, around 50 percent of babies can usually sit up
unsupported.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
213. Ann-Marie started walking when she was 10 months old; Cynthia is just
beginning to take steps by herself at 13 months.
Which conclusion is MOST likely true?
A) Ann-Marie is very intelligent.
B) Cynthia is malnourished.
C) Cynthia is mentally handicapped.
D) Both girls are developing normally.
214. On average, which of these skills does an infant develop last?
A) pulling up onto feet
B) standing alone without holding on
C) sitting without support
D) standing while holding on
215. On average, which of these skills does an infant develop first?
A) running
B) walking backward
C) walking well
D) jumping
216. Aran’s mother has been helping him to walk by holding his hands and
supporting him. Aran’s legs are strong enough to hold
him up, and he’s able to move his legs in a coordinated way as long as his
mother supports him. What else does Aran need in
order to walk on his own?
A) muscle strength
B) brain maturation
C) practice
D) fine motor skills
217. Fine motor skills are _____.
A) head motions
B) small movements
C) large movements
D) feet motions
218. Small movements made by fingers and toes are known as _____ motor skills.
A) athletic
B) primitive
C) fine
D) gross
Page 14
219. Fine motor skills are those that _____.
A) develop as a result of brain damage
B) require practice
C) require small body movements
D) use three or more muscles
220. Behaviors that involve small body movements are known as _____ motor
skills.
A) gross
B) fine
C) mature
D) micro
221. An example of a fine motor skill is _____.
A) using scissors to cut paper
B) swimming across a pool
C) roller-skating around the block
D) playing catch with a football
222. An activity that requires fine motor skills is _____.
A) buttoning a coat
B) kicking a ball
C) climbing a tree
D) playing tag
223. Baby Sam can grab objects, but sometimes he closes his hand too early or
too late. Sam is probably around _____ months
old.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
224. Most babies learn to grasp and hold onto objects by about _____ months
old.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
225. At least _____ billion children were born between the years 1950 and 2015.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 8
D) 10
226. Between 1950 and 2015, almost _____ children died before age 5.
A) 1 million
B) 5 million
C) 1 billion
D) 5 billion
227. What is one effect of lower infant mortality rates?
A) Mothers have more babies.
B) Mothers have fewer babies.
C) Mothers achieve less education.
D) National economies are undermined.
228. Based on research about SIDS, caregivers are advised that babies should be
_____.
A) put to sleep on their backs
B) put to sleep on their stomachs
C) kept in a very warm bedroom
D) fed right before being put to bed
229. Susan Beal hypothesized that _____ played a role in SIDS deaths.
A) birth order
B) ethnicity
C) sleeping position
D) parents’ genes
Page 15
230. When the immune system is primed to resist a particular
disease, the process is called _____.
A) exuberance
B) immunization
C) pertussis
D) head-sparing
231. For which illness is immunization NOT available?
A) malaria
B) measles
C) whooping cough
D) smallpox
232. The most lethal disease for children in the past was _____.
A) polio
B) smallpox
C) rubeola
D) anencephaly
233. When children are immunized, they contribute to the protection of others.
This is referred to as _____.
A) community immunity
B) vaccinating
C) herd immunity
D) failure to thrive
234. Clean water, immunizations, and nourishing food have all had a dramatic
impact on _____.
A) infant mortality
B) maternal education levels
C) population constriction
D) rates of violence
235. Breast milk _____.
A) is deficient in iron and vitamin C
B) is more likely than formula to produce allergies
C) provides antibodies to fight diseases
D) upsets the baby’s digestive system more than formula
236. Why are breast-fed babies less likely to contract infectious diseases than
bottle-fed babies?
A) They are less likely to come in contact with viruses and bacteria.
B) Breasts are more sterile than bottles.
C) Breast milk contains antibodies.
D) Most breast-fed babies don’t leave the home often.
237. Studies comparing breast-feeding to bottle-feeding show that _____.
A) breast-fed babies have fewer allergies and stomach upsets
B) breast-feeding is recommended for about half of all mothers
C) recent improvements in formula make bottle-feeding more nutritious than
breast milk
D) breast-feeding should end as soon as a baby gets a tooth
238. Shirley returned to full-time employment six weeks after her baby’s birth.
She exclusively breast-fed during her maternity
leave, and then pumped her breast milk when she returned to work. Now her baby
is 3 months old and drinks some formula
when at day care. Shirley wants to stop breast-feeding. If you were a pediatric
nurse, what would you say to her?
A) She can quit breast-feeding because all of its benefits are achieved within
the first three months.
B) She should quit breast-feeding because it is only beneficial if the baby
doesn’t drink any formula.
C) She should keep breast-feeding until the baby begins to eat solid foods,
which is the point at which breast milk loses its
nutritional value.
D) She should keep breast-feeding for at least six months because breast-fed
babies are less likely to get sick.
239. A child who is short for his or her age due to severe malnutrition is
suffering from a condition called _____.
A) stunting
B) marasmus
C) wasting
D) protein calorie malnutrition
240. When a child is 2 or more standard deviations underweight for his or her
age, the child is suffering from a condition called
_____.
A) stunting
B) wasting
C) marasmus
D) protein calorie malnutrition
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241. Hasan is 2 years old and does not have enough food. As a
result, he has unusual swelling in his face and abdomen and thin,
colorless hair. Hasan is suffering from _____.
A) kwashiorkor
B) marasmus
C) rickets
D) hypoglycemia
242. Lyrissa lives in Africa. She is 9 months old and does not weigh enough
because of malnutrition. Her tissues are wasting
away. Lyrissa suffers from _____.
A) rickets
B) hypoglycemia
C) kwashiorkor
D) marasmus
243. Piaget called an infant’s first period of cognitive development _____.
A) sensorimotor intelligence
B) adaptation
C) object awareness
D) imitative learning
244. During the sensorimotor stage, the child’s main task is to _____.
A) learn to use language to express sensations
B) think of past and future events
C) use senses and motor skills to understand the world
D) think logically and critically
245. Piaget believed children begin to develop cognitively at _____.
A) birth
B) 3 months
C) 1 year
D) 18 months
246. In Piaget’s terminology, sensorimotor stage one is described as _____.
A) the stage of reflexes
B) making interesting sights last
C) first acquired adaptations
D) new adaptation and anticipation
247. When 1-week-old Justine feels too warm, she reflexively cries. According
to Piaget, Justine is in stage _____ of the
sensorimotor period.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
248. In Piaget’s terminology, sensorimotor stage two is described as _____.
A) the stage of reflexes
B) first acquired adaptations
C) making interesting sights last
D) new adaptation and anticipation
249. Freddy has been sucking his thumb for a few weeks. His parents would
prefer him to use a pacifier, so they begin to offer
one, but Freddy rejects it and continues to suck his thumb. Freddy is most
clearly in stage _____ of Piaget’s theory of
sensorimotor development.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
250. In which of Piaget’s sensorimotor stages do infants respond to people and
objects and seek to make interesting events last?
A) stage one
B) stage two
C) stage three
D) stage four
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251. “Do you want to play patty-cake?” Sofia asks her infant
daughter. The baby responds by clapping her hands. In which stage
of sensorimotor development is Sofia’s baby?
A) stage one
B) stage two
C) stage three
D) stage four
252. In which of Piaget’s sensorimotor stages do infants adapt, anticipate, and
become more deliberate in responding to people and
objects?
A) stage one
B) stage two
C) stage three
D) stage four
253. Adriana and her mother have been playing patty-cake, but mother is now
trying to engage Adriana in a picture book. Adriana
wants to play patty-cake again, so she grabs her mother’s hands and puts them
together as if in a clap. Adriana is clearly in
which stage of sensorimotor development?
A) stage one
B) stage two
C) stage three
D) stage four
254. The first of Piaget’s sensorimotor stages that involves an infant’s
interaction with something else is _____.
A) stage one
B) stage two
C) stage three
D) stage five
255. The behavior of an infant in sensorimotor stage four might best be described
as _____.
A) deliberate
B) experimental
C) creative
D) anxious
256. The behavior of an infant in sensorimotor stage four might best be
described as _____.
A) goal-oriented
B) redundant
C) stubborn
D) unintentional
257. An example of stage-three sensorimotor behavior is _____.
A) thumb-sucking and self-soothing
B) looking for a smile and smiling back
C) searching for a teddy bear hidden under a blanket
D) trying to dress like mother or father
258. Sensorimotor stage four is the stage of _____.
A) making interesting sights last
B) new means through active experimentation
C) new means through mental combinations
D) new adaptation and anticipation
259. Stage _____ of sensorimotor development is characterized by trying to
continue an experience, whereas stage _____ is
characterized by initiating and anticipating events.
A) one; two
B) two; three
C) three; four
D) four; five
260. Baby Hugh enjoys playing with his father’s keys, but when his father takes
them away, Hugh does not search for them. Piaget
would say that is because Hugh does not understand _____.
A) conservation
B) object permanence
C) egocentrism
D) affordances
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