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Sample Test

Chapter_03_Legal_Issues_in_Employee_Selection

 

 

Multiple Choice

 

1. ​In the past few years, about _____ discrimination complaints were filed with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.

 

a.

​90,000

 

b.

​500,000

 

c.

​950

 

d.

​10,000

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

2. The first step in the legal process is for some legislative body to:​

 

a.

​get sued

 

b.

​receive a complaint

 

c.

​pass a law

 

d.

​take a vote

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

3. If a law is passed at the federal level, states may pass laws that _____ the rights granted in the federal law, states may not pass laws that will _____ the rights granted in the federal law.​

 

a.

​diminish / expand

 

b.

​expand / change

 

c.

​diminish / change

 

d.

​expand / diminish

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

4. In which of the following ADR methods does a neutral third-party make a decision that both sides must abide by?​

 

a.

​Binding arbitration

 

b.

​Nonbinding arbitration

 

c.

​Mediation

 

d.

​Negotiation

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

5. ​The EEOC usually handles alleged violations of:

 

a.

​state laws

 

b.

​federal laws

 

c.

​county laws

 

d.

​none of these

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

6. In order for a case of discrimination to be investigated by the EEOC, the complaint must be filed

within _____ days of the discriminatory act.

 

a.

​120

 

b.

​140

 

c.

​160

 

d.

​180

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

7. According to the Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act, an employee filing a discrimination complaint with the EEOC regarding pay discrimination, has 180 days from when she:​

 

a.

​was hired

 

b.

​received her last pay check

 

c.

​was told of her salary

 

d.

​discovered she was underpaid

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

8. When the courts make a decision, the decision becomes:​

 

a.

​final

 

b.

​moot

 

c.

​case law

 

d.

​a statute

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

9. _______ is a judicial interpretation of a law and is important because it establishes a precedent for future cases.​

 

a.

​A statute

 

b.

​Case law

 

c.

​A briefing

 

d.

​A sanction

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

10. Based on the Civil Rights Acts of 1866, 1964, and 1991 as well as the 14th Amendment, it is illegal to discriminate against a person based on race. According to Congress, all of the following are protected races except:

 

a.

​African Americans

 

b.

​Asian Americans

 

c.

​Native American Indians

 

d.

​all three of these are protected races

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

11. The “equal protection” clause of the Fourteenth Amendment mandates that no state may deny a person equal protection under the law. Because any suite filed under the Fourteenth Amendment must demonstrate ______, it is not often used.​

 

a.

​intent

 

b.

​past discrimination

 

c.

​equal protection

 

d.

​due process

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

12. The 1964 Civil Rights Act (Title VII) and its 1972 and 1991 amendments cover:​

 

a.

​unintentional discrimination

 

b.

​race, color, sex, religion, national origin

 

c.

​companies with 15 or more people

 

d.

​all of these

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

13. Unlike the Fourteenth Amendment, for an employment practice to be potentially illegal under the Civil Rights Act, the discrimination does not have to:​

 

a.

​be continuous

 

b.

​be intentional

 

c.

​effect large groups

 

d.

​show past discrimination

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

14. The Civil Rights Act has also been interpreted by the courts to cover such issues as sexual harassment, age harassment, and race harassment. These issues are related to the organization’s:​

 

a.

​structure

 

b.

​hiring practices

 

c.

​atmosphere

 

d.

​policies

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

15. In the 1989 case of Walker v. Secretary of the Treasury, a district court found that a darker skinned black illegally fired a lighter skinned black employee. Which of the following protected classes were at issue in this case?​

 

a.

​Age

 

b.

​Disability

 

c.

​Race

 

d.

​Color

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

16. ​“English only” requirements at work are:

 

a.

​always illegal

 

b.

​always legal

 

c.

​are legal if they are job related

 

d.

​legal if most of employees only speak English

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

17. All employees at Wally World Amusement Park are required to work on weekends because that is when 80% of the customers visit the park. Alex likes to go to church on Sunday morning and asks that he not have to work on Sunday. Must the park accommodate his request?​

 

a.

​Yes, religious accommodations must always be make

 

b.

​No, because going to church in the morning is a preference and he can go in the evening

 

c.

​No, private sector organizations are not required to accommodate days of worship

 

d.

​Yes, preferences for days and time of worship are protected

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

18. It is illegal to use an individual’s religion in an employment decision unless the nature of the job involves:​

 

a.

​national security

 

b.

​religion

 

c.

​the public sector

 

d.

​the private sector

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

19. In determining if an employment decision is legal, the first question to ask is “does the employment practice directly refer to a member of a federally protected class? Which of the following is NOT a federally protected class?​

 

a.

​Sexual orientation

 

b.

​Religion

 

c.

​Color

 

d.

​All are protected classes

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

20. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) forbids an employer from discriminating against an individual over the age of:​

 

a.

​35

 

b.

​40

 

c.

​45

 

d.

​50

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

21. Which of the following is not an important factor in filing a complaint of age discrimination?​

 

a.

​you are at least 40

 

b.

​a younger person was hired to replace you

 

c.

​you were a good employee

 

d.

​all three are important factors

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

22. The _______ is thought to be the most important piece of employment legislation since the 1964 Civil Rights Act.​

 

a.

​Sexual Preference Fairness Act

 

b.

​Equal Pay Act

 

c.

​Americans with Disabilities Act

 

d.

​Vietnam-Era Veterans Readjustment Act

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

23. Though Congress did not provide a list of disabilities, it did define disability in part as “having a record of such impairment.” Which of the following “disabilities” would qualify under this part of the definition?​

 

a.

​blindness

 

b.

​severe burns

 

c.

​asthma

 

d.

​recovering alcoholics

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

24. Though Congress did not provide a list of disabilities, it did define disability in part as “being regarded as having such an impairment.” Which of the following “disabilities” would qualify under this part of the definition?​

 

a.

​blindness

 

b.

​severe burns

 

c.

​asthma

 

d.

​recovering alcoholics

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

25. If a disability keeps a person from performing the _______ of a job, the person does not have to be hired or retained.​

 

a.

​marginal functions

 

b.

​essential functions

 

c.

​remote functions

 

d.

​standard functions

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

26. Nagy Industries is considering reserving the best parking spots for employees who are 7 months pregnant. Is this legal?​

 

a.

​No, giving preference would violate the Pregnancy Discrimination Act

 

b.

​No, pregnancy can not be treated better than other short term disabilities

 

c.

​Yes, pregnancy can be treated better than other short term disabilities

 

d.

​Yes, the Pregnancy Discrimination Act requires companies to provide accommodations

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

27. If a job can only be performed by a person in a particular class, the requirement is considered:​

 

a.

​a BFOQ

 

b.

​restrictive

 

c.

​discriminatory

 

d.

​to be none of these three choices

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

28. The courts have clearly ruled that a customer’s satisfaction and/or preference ________ used to determine if a job requirement is a BFOQ.​

 

a.

​should be

 

b.

​must be

 

c.

​cannot be

 

d.

​the courts haven’t ruled on this issue

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

29. _______ means a particular employment decision results in negative consequences more often for members of one protected group than for another.​

 

a.

​Adverse impact

 

b.

​Bad faith dealings

 

c.

​Disparate treatment

 

d.

​Bona fide occupational qualification

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

30. Which of the following can establish practical significance for adverse impact?​

 

a.

​Standard deviation test

 

b.

​Four-fifths rule

 

c.

​McDonnell Douglas standards

 

d.

​Chi-square analysis

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

31. ​For adverse impact to have practical significance, the minority selection ratio must be less than ____ percent of the majority selection ratio.

 

a.

​50

 

b.

​30

 

c.

​80

 

d.

​75

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

32. ​If ____ White applicants and ____ Black applicants were hired, adverse impact would occur.

 

a.

​35 of 50 / 12 of 20

 

b.

​15 of 50 / 2 of 25

 

c.

​12 of 24 / 11 of 25

 

d.

​12 of 20 / 35 of 50

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

33. An employment practice resulting in adverse impact may still be legal as long as:​

 

a.

​the test used was job related

 

b.

​there was no intent to discriminate

 

c.

​neither of the two options is true

 

d.

​both of the options are true

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

34. Based on the material presented in your text, which of the following is NOT an exception to the requirement of determining that an employment practice is job related?​

 

a.

​National security

 

b.

​Bona fide seniority system

 

c.

​Veteran’s preference rights

 

d.

​All three of these are exceptions

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

35. Which of the following types of harassment are NOT illegal?​

 

a.

​Age

 

b.

​Sexual

 

c.

​Racial

 

d.

​All three types are illegal

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

36. A supervisor offering a promotion in exchange for sex would fall under the ______ form

of sexual harassment.

 

a.

​BFOQ

 

b.

quid pro quo

 

c.

sine quo non

 

d.

​hostile environnent

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

37. In a quid pro quo case of sexual harassment, ____ sexual advance(s) must have been made.​

 

a.

​two

 

b.

​no

 

c.

​one

 

d.

​at least three

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

38. Asking a coworker out on a date is sexual harassment if:​

 

a.

​he/she is not interested

 

b.

​the request is made several times

 

c.

​both options must occur

 

d.

​either of the two options occurs

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

39. Which of the following components of a sexual harassment policy would be illegal?​

 

a.

​All complaints must be investigated

 

b.

​The punishment must be severe

 

c.

​Complaints must be kept confidential

 

d.

​All of three are legal and good policy

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

40. Sexual harassment results in:​

 

a.

​decreased productivity

 

b.

​increased absenteeism

 

c.

​increased turnover

 

d.

​all of these are results

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

41. Employees using FMLA must:​

 

a.

​be given paid leave

 

b.

​have at least 5 years of tenure

 

c.

​give 30 days notice when possible

 

d.

​all three of these are true

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

42. Jean is the 2nd highest paid employee at Reilly, Inc. She has worked there 3 years and wants to take 4 weeks of unpaid leave to have a baby. She gave the company 45 days notice but they rejected her request. Under the FMLA, the company can do this because she:​

 

a.

​is a key employee

 

b.

​hasn’t worked at the company long enough

 

c.

​asked for too much leave

 

d.

​did not give the required amount of notice

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

43. There are several affirmative action strategies an employer could use. If an employer advertised in magazines and newspapers with a minority readership, it would be using which of the following strategies?​

 

a.

​Identification of discriminatory practices

 

b.

​Preferential hiring and promotion of minorities

 

c.

​Recruitment of minority applicants

 

d.

​Recruiting through employee referrals

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

44. ​Which of the affirmative action strategies would involve an employer changing the company policy or the way an organization is decorated?

 

a.

​Identification of discriminatory practices

 

b.

​Preferential hiring and promotion of minorities

 

c.

​Recruitment of minority applicants

 

d.

​Recruiting through employee referrals

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

45. Organizations have affirmative action plans for one of four reasons. Which of the following is NOT one of the four reasons?​

 

a.

​Labor union agreement

 

b.

​Desire to be a good citizen

 

c.

​Court order

 

d.

​Consent decree

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

46. ​With a _______, the agency agrees with a judge that it has not hired or promoted enough members of a protected class and is willing to make changes.

 

a.

​labor union agreement

 

b.

​desire to be a good citizen

 

c.

​court order

 

d.

​consent decree

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

47. Which of the following populations is used to statistically determine discrimination?​

 

a.

​Area population

 

b.

​Qualified work force

 

c.

​Control group population

 

d.

​National census data

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

48. ​AT&G does not have any female employees. Ann Smith applied for a job as a machine operator. Though she did not obtain the minimum score of 40 on the machine operator test, AT&G plans to hire her as part of their new affirmative action plan. There are 10 men who passed the test who did not get hired. Is this legal?

 

a.

​No, an applicant must be qualified to be given preference based on gender or race

 

b.

​No, preference is never allowed

 

c.

​Yes, because AT&G has no women employees, they can do this

 

d.

​Yes, because they are only changing their rules for one person, this would be a reasonable plan

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

49. Research has indicated that employees hired due to affirmative action programs are perceived by coworkers as:​

 

a.

​lucky

 

b.

​more competent

 

c.

​equally competent

 

d.

​less competent

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

50. The ______ protects against unreasonable search and seizure.​

 

a.

​Fourth Amendment

 

b.

​Fifth Amendment

 

c.

​Fourteenth Amendment

 

d.

​1964 Civil Rights Act (Title VII)

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

51. When rendering decisions involving the 4th Amendment, as it applies to drug testing, ​courts have based their decisions on all of the following factors except:

 

a.

​reasonable suspicion of drug use

 

b.

​adverse impact

 

c.

​safety and trust of the public

 

d.

​the opportunity to retest a specimen

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

52. Allowing employees to _________ removes the right of the organization to search the lockers.​

 

a.

​place their own locks on lockers

 

b.

​place their name on the lockers

 

c.

​sign a waiver

 

d.

​organizations can never search lockers

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

53. A test asking questions about sexual orientation or belief in God might be illegal due to:​

 

a.

​invasion of privacy

 

b.

​adverse impact

 

c.

​tort law

 

d.

​low reliability

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

54. The case law most pertinent to privacy issues and psychological testing is:​

 

a.

Soroka v. Dayton Hudson

 

b.

Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Services

 

c.

Griggs v. Duke Power

 

d.

Harris v. Forklift Systems

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

Objective Short Answer

 

55. ​What are the federally protected classes?

ANSWER:  

  • Sex (male, female)
  • Race (African American, European American, Asian American, Native American)
  • National Origin
  • Religion
  • Color
  • Age (40 or over)
  • Pregnancy
  • Vietnam Veteran Status
  • Disability

 

56. ​What employment practices are most subject to invasion of privacy issues?

ANSWER:  

  • Drug testing
  • Office searches
  • Psychological testing
  • Electronic surveillance

 

57. ​What are the two types of sexual harassment?

ANSWER:  

  • quid pro quo
  • hostile environment

 

58. What are the three major affirmative action strategies?​

ANSWER:  

  • Intentional recruitment of minority applicants
  • Identification and removal of employment practices working against minority applicants and employees
  • Preferential hiring and promotion of minorities

 

59. What are the four common reasons for affirmative action plans?​

ANSWER:  

  • Court order
  • Government regulation
  • Consent decree
  • Desire to be a good employer

 

60. What are the five key issues in determining the legality of an affirmative action plan involving preferential hiring or promotion of minorities?​

ANSWER:  

  • Was there a history of discrimination?
  • Does the plan benefit people who were not actual victims of discrimination?
  • What population (area or qualified work force) was used to set goals?
  • What is the impact of the plan on nonminorities?
  • Is there an ending point to the plan?

 

Chapter_05_Employee_Selection_References_and_Testing

 

 

Multiple Choice

 

1. In psychology, it is commonly believed that the best predictor of future performance is:​

 

a.

​results from a psychological test

 

b.

​present performance

 

c.

​past performance

 

d.

​asking the person if they can do the job

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

2. The process of confirming the accuracy of information provided by the applicant is called a:​

 

a.

​reference

 

b.

​reference check

 

c.

​letter of recommendation

 

d.

​trait evaluation

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

3. ​Because it is not uncommon for applicants to engage in resume fraud, references and letters of recommendation are used to:

 

a.

​confirm details on a resume

 

b.

​check for outside interests and habits

 

c.

​check for discipline problems

 

d.

​discover new applicant information

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

4. ​Which of the following is good advice in asking for a letter of recommendation?

 

a.

​Provide your reference with a copy of your resume

 

b.

​Give your reference plenty of advance notice before the letter is due

 

c.

​Choose references who can provide information from multiple perspectives

 

d.

​All three are good advice

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

5. ​If an employer does not check an applicant’s references and the applicant molests a child after being hired, the employer could be charged with:

 

a.

​negligent reference

 

b.

​defamation

 

c.

​tort reform

 

d.

​negligent hiring

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

6. ​Even though references are commonly used to screen and select employees, they have not been successful in predicting future employee success. The average uncorrected validity coefficient for references and performance is:

 

a.

​.00

 

b.

​.18

 

c.

​.32

 

d.

​.57

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

7. ​Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to reference leniency?

 

a.

​Applicants choose their own references

 

b.

​Employers fear legal ramifications

 

c.

​Most applicants are highly skilled

 

d.

​All three contribute to leniency

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

8. ​In a reference check over the telephone, Bob says that his former employee Ted was a real jerk and couldn’t be trusted. Ted might sue Bob for:

 

a.

​negligent hiring

 

b.

​libel

 

c.

​negligent reference

 

d.

​slander

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

9. ​A problem associated with letters of recommendation is the lack of agreement between two people who provide references for the same person. This lack of agreement is related to the issue of:

 

a.

​reliability

 

b.

knowledge of the applicant​

 

c.

​leniency

 

d.

​extraneous factors

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

10. ​Increasing the ______ of references seems to increase validity.

 

a.

​length

 

b.

​scoring complexity

 

c.

​structure

 

d.

​psychometric depth

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

11. ​Which of the following is NOT an ethical practice in providing references or writing letter of recommendation?

 

a.

​State the nature of your relationship with the applicant

 

b.

​Provide an honest appraisal of the applicant

 

c.

​Always write a positive letter of recommendation

 

d.

​Let the applicant see a copy of your reference before you send it

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

12. ​Which of the following is NOT true regarding the use of grade point average for employee selection?

 

a.

​GPA predicts job performance

 

b.

GPA predicts best in the first years after graduation​

 

c.

​GPA has low adverse impact

 

d.

​All three are true

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

13. ​Tests that are designed to measure how much someone already knows rather than how much someone is capable of knowing are referred to as:

 

a.

​knowledge tests

 

b.

​interest inventories

 

c.

​personality tests

 

d.

​aptitude tests

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

14. ​The major disadvantage to job knowledge tests is that even though they do a good job of predicting performance, they often result in _______.

 

a.

​high costs

 

b.

​misdiagnosis

 

c.

​invasion of privacy issues

 

d.

​adverse impact

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

15. ​Most general ability tests place the many specific aptitudes into one of three main dimensions. The _______ dimension includes verbal, numerical, logic, and general learning aptitudes.

 

a.

​cognitive

 

b.

​developmental

 

c.

​perceptual

 

d.

​psychomotor

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

16. ​The _________ is a potential breakthrough in cognitive ability tests as it has high validity and lower levels of adverse impact.

 

a.

​Miller Revised Intelligence Scale

 

b.

​Siena Reasoning Test

 

c.

​Cognitive Styles Assessment Test

 

d.

​Employee Knowledge Scale

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

17. ​Color discrimination, glare sensitivity, and speech recognition are examples of ______ abilities.

 

a.

​cognitive

 

b.

​developmental

 

c.

​perceptual

 

d.

​psychomotor

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

18. ​Tests of ______ ability might contain measures of finger dexterity and manual dexterity aptitudes.

 

a.

​cognitive

 

b.

​developmental

 

c.

​perceptual

 

d.

​psychomotor

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

19. ​Jobs such as police officer, fire fighter, and lifeguard, which require physical strength and stamina, often use _______tests.

 

a.

​physical ability

 

b.

​mental ability

 

c.

​general aptitude

 

d.

​job knowledge

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

20. ​Which of the following is NOT a concern about using physical ability tests?

 

a.

​Job relatedness

 

b.

​Reliability

 

c.

​Passing scores

 

d.

​When the ability must be present

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

21. ​A job in which an employee continually lifts 25 pound boxes from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. requires:

 

a.

​trunk strength

 

b.

​gross body equilibrium

 

c.

​dynamic strength

 

d.

​static strength

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

22. ​Though work samples are excellent selection tools for several reasons, the main reason for not using them is that they can be:

 

a.

​expensive to construct

 

b.

​expensive to administer

 

c.

​neither are important reasons

 

d.

​both are important reasons

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

23. ​Which of the following selection methods uses multiple techniques and multiple observers to evaluate applicants as they perform different job-related tasks?

 

a.

​Work samples

 

b.

​Assessment centers

 

c.

​Psychological testing

 

d.

​job-knowledge testing

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

24. ​Which of the following is NOT a requirement for an assessment center?

 

a.

​Multiple assessors

 

b.

​Multiple assessment exercices

 

c.

​Use of an interview

 

d.

​At least one simulation exercise

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

25. ​The first step in creating an assessment center is to:

 

a.

​conduct a job analysis

 

b.

​find a location to hold the center

 

c.

develop the necessary exercises​

 

d.

​restructure the company budget

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

26. ​Which assessment center technique is designed to simulate the types of daily information that appear on a manager’s or employee’s desk?

 

a.

simulation​

 

b.

​work sample

 

c.

​leaderless group discussion

 

d.

​in-basket technique

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

27. ​Which of the following assessment center techniques allows the applicant to demonstrate such attributes as creativity, decision making, and ability to work with others?

 

a.

Business games​

 

b.

​Out-basket technique

 

c.

​Simulations

 

d.

​In-basket technique

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

28. ​The first step in the development of a biodata instrument is to:

 

a.

​obtain information about employees

 

b.

​analyze group differences

 

c.

​choose an appropriate criterion

 

d.

​split employees into two criterion groups

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

29. ​The traditionally used method to compare each piece of employee information with criterion group membership in the biodata process is the:

 

a.

​questionnaire approach

 

b.

​rare response scoring

 

c.

​vertical percentage method

 

d.

​composite scoring

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

30. ​In constructing a biodata instrument, John asks his employees to answer a series of questions about their background. John then compares these answers to the employees’ job performance. John is using which of the following methods?

 

a.

​rare response scoring

 

b.

​questionnaire approach

 

c.

​vertical percentage method

 

d.

​composite scoring

 

ANSWER:  

b

 

31. ​Which of the following are criticisms of biodata?

 

a.

​The validity of biodata may not be stable

 

b.

​Some biodata items may not be legal

 

c.

Both are criticisms​

 

d.

​Neither are criticisms of biodata

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

32. ​Gandy and Dye (1989) believe that proper biodata items must:

 

a.

​be job related

 

b.

​deal with events under a person’s control

 

c.

​have answers that are verifiable

 

d.

​all three of these are item standards

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

33. ​The 16PF is a personality inventory whose 16 dimensions were determined by a factor analysis. The 16PF is an example of a(n) ______ test.

 

a.

​theory-based

 

b.

​empirically-keyed based

 

c.

​parapsychology-based

 

d.

​statistically-based

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

34. ​Though there is some disagreement, psychologists today agree there are _______ main personality dimensions.

 

a.

two​

 

b.

​three

 

c.

​five

 

d.

​seven

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

35. ​Which of the following is NOT one of the “Big 5” personality dimensions?

 

a.

​openness to experience

 

b.

​agreeableness

 

c.

​conscientiousness

 

d.

​vigor

 

ANSWER:  

d

 

36. ​Tests of _______ determine if individuals have serious psychological problems such as depression and bipolar disorder.

 

a.

​psychopathology

 

b.

​psychometrics

 

c.

​character

 

d.

​integrity

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

37. ​Because they are expensive, time-consuming to score and administer, and lack reliability and validity, _______ tests such as the Rorschach Ink Blot Test are seldom used by I/O psychologists.

 

a.

​objective

 

b.

​subjective

 

c.

​projective

 

d.

​multi-modal

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

38. ​A job applicant is given a set of questions in which she is asked to rate the extent to which she is outgoing, anxious, optimistic, careful, and loyal. She is probably taking:

 

a.

​a personality inventory

 

b.

​an interest inventory

 

c.

​a cognitive ability test

 

d.

​an assessment center

 

ANSWER:  

a

 

39. ​Of the four choices below, which is the worst predictor of employee performance?

 

a.

​Biodata

 

b.

​Cognitive ability

 

c.

​Vocational interest

 

d.

​Assessment centers

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

40. ​_______ are designed to tell an employer the probability that an applicant would steal money or merchandise.

 

a.

​Creativity tests

 

b.

​Social desirability tests

 

c.

​Integrity tests

 

d.

​Theft analysis inventory

 

ANSWER:  

c

 

 

 

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