Human Resource Management Gaining A Competitive Advantage 10th Edition by Noe Raymond Andrew Noe – Test Bank

 

 

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Sample Questions

 

 

Chapter 04

<The Analysis and Design of Work>

 

True / False Questions

1.	If an organization decides to compete on costs, and hires low-cost labor, it needs to have a decentralized structure to enable autonomy in decision-making by the workers. True    False

 

2.	Work-flow design is the process of analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product or service, and it is performed after allocating and assigning these tasks to a particular job category or person. True    False

 

3.	The use of software in the workplace can make employees less effective at their jobs under certain conditions. True    False

 

4.	Teams have to be given the autonomy to make their own decisions in order to maximize the flexible use of their skill and time. True    False

 

5.	For teams to be effective, it is essential that the level of task interdependence is greater than the level of outcome interdependence. True    False

 

6.	The final stage in work-flow analysis is to identify the inputs used in the development of a work unit’s product. True    False

 

7.	Centralization is the degree to which work units are grouped based on functional similarity or similarity of workflow. True    False

 

8.	Due to their work-flow focus and proximity to a homogeneous consumer base, divisional structures tend to be less flexible and innovative. True    False

 

9.	Divisional structures are most appropriate in stable and predictable environments. True    False

 

10.	Functional structures help support organizations that compete on differentiation or innovation, because flexible responsiveness is central to making this strategy work. True    False

 

11.	Job analysis is the process of getting detailed information about jobs. True    False

 

12.	Job evaluation is the process of getting information about how well each employee is performing in order to reward those who are effective and improve the performance of those who are ineffective. True    False

 

13.	A job description is a list of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics that an individual must have to perform the job. True    False

 

14.	Knowledge is an individual’s level of proficiency at performing a particular task. True    False

 

15.	The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) covers only the work context, leaving out the inputs, outputs, and processes involved in the job. True    False

 

16.	One component of the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) examines how employees interact with colleagues. True    False

 

17.	Due to technological changes in the nature of work and global competition, the Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT) has been replaced by the Occupational Information Network (O*NET). True    False

 

18.	Unlike the Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT), the Occupational Information Network (O*NET) relies on fixed job titles and narrow task descriptions. True    False

 

19.	Although there are numerous sources for error in the job analysis process, most inaccuracy is likely to result from job descriptions simply being outdated. True    False

 

20.	The perceptual-motor approach to job design has its roots in classical industrial engineering. True    False

 

21.	Scientific management first sought to identify the “one best way” to perform the job. True    False

 

22.	The motivational approach views attitudinal variables and behavioral variables as the most important outcomes of job design. True    False

 

23.	Ergonomics is concerned with examining the interface between individuals’ psychological characteristics and the physical work environment. True    False

 

24.	The perceptual-motor approach generally increases the job’s cognitive demands. True    False

 

25.	All efficiency-producing changes result in dissatisfying work, and all changes that promote satisfaction create inevitable inefficiencies. True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

26.

Which of the following is true of how job design and job analysis have functioned in the past? A. Job design has focused on making existing jobs more motivating.   B. Job analysis has been oriented toward changing the job.   C. Job design has been oriented toward information gathering.   D. Job design has focused on evaluating existing jobs.   E. Job analysis has focused on revamping existing jobs.

 

27.

The tasks performed as a part of job analysis A. are mutually exclusive of those of job design.   B. focus primarily on creating new jobs.   C. focus primarily on revamping existing jobs.   D. have a passive, information-gathering orientation.   E. have a proactive orientation toward changing the job.

 

28.

Work-flow design is the process of A. allocating resources required for completing a task.   B. assigning the task to a particular job category or person.   C. analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product.   D. evaluating the resource input and the actual output of a task.   E. comparing the results of a task with its objectives.

 

29.

James, a manager at Brown & Brown (B&B) Inc., a publisher of academic books, is tasked with identifying the various pieces of work required to edit, typeset, and publish a fictional book prior to allocating and assigning them to his subordinates. Which of the following processes is James expected to perform? A. Job evaluation   B. Work-flow evaluation   C. Job performance   D. Work-flow design   E. Performance evaluation

 

30.

Which of the following questions should be addressed right after the inputs required for production have been established? A. What materials, data, and information are needed?   B. What special equipment, facilities, and systems are needed?   C. What knowledge, skills, and abilities are needed by those performing the tasks?   D. What tasks are required in the production of the output?   E. What product, information, or service is provided?

 

31.	Which stage in a work-unit activity analysis focuses on the product produced or service provided? A. Raw inputs   B. Equipment   C. Output   D. Activity   E. Human resource input

 

32.	Which of the following led to problems for McDonald’s when it began offering the McWrap product? A. Poor quality inputs   B. Complex work processes   C. Outdated equipment   D. Low task interdependence   E. Low outcome interdependence

 

33.

Which of the following is required for teams to be effective? A. The level of task interdependence should be higher than the level of outcome interdependence.   B. The level of sharing rewards for task accomplishment should be higher than the level of cooperation.   C. Individual pay raises need to play a major role in terms of defining rewards.   D. Individual accountability of behavior should be a critical indicator of performance.   E. Teams should not be given autonomy or allowed to be flexible in how they use their time and skills.

 

34.

Which of the following is true of teams? A. Teams provide organizations with a limited set of skills to utilize.   B. Team members can share work when any member becomes overloaded.   C. Rewards are focused on individual pay raises rather than team bonuses.   D. By limiting a team’s autonomy, organizations can improve its efficiency.   E. The collective nature of the team removes the need for individual accountability.

 

35.

Which of the following best explains outcome interdependence in relation to teams? A. The level to which an individual team member has to contribute to achieve the team’s output   B. The amount of resources shared among team members to help them accomplish the team’s task   C. The extent to which an individual team member leans on the other team members to achieve his or her output   D. The level of input required from the team as a whole to complete its set tasks   E. The level to which the reward for task accomplishment is shared among the team members

 

36.

Which of the following is the primary role of an efficiency expert? A. Looking for additional resources to increase productivity   B. Implementing a system that can store excess inventories   C. Introducing new equipment that will increase output   D. Removing every bit of waste in production operations   E. Employing more people to complete a task more quickly

 

37.

Which of the following is likely to happen when a private equity group hires an efficiency expert? A. Overburdening people by removing machines   B. Modifying production processes to support excess inventories   C. Increasing the number of employees involved in a particular task   D. Limiting procedures that streamline operations   E. Decreasing movements that create no value

 

38.

How does lean production differ from “batch work” methods? A. It stresses the need for using the maximum number of people for production.   B. It has fewer employees who are well trained.   C. It has more opportunity to cut costs by laying off employees.   D. It emphasizes the use of maximum materials.   E. It employs a large number of low-skilled workers.

 

39.	The final stage in work-flow analysis is to identify the work _____ in the development of the work unit’s product. A. results   B. relationships   C. processes   D. inputs   E. ethics

 

40.

Jamal, an efficiency expert, proposes the “just-in-time” inventory method to Liza, the CEO of Neptune Inc. If Liza is to accept the proposal, which of the following changes is he most likely to implement in Neptune Inc.? A. He is likely to avoid the made-for-order method of manufacturing.   B. He is likely to create a larger storage space for inventories.   C. He is likely to introduce processes that support lean production.   D. He is likely to manufacture mass products well ahead of demand.   E. He is likely to stock a backup of supplies for emergencies.

 

41.	_____ provides a longitudinal overview of the dynamic relationships by which inputs are converted into outputs. A. Job analysis   B. Organization structure   C. Organizational dynamics   D. Work-relationship analysis   E. Work-flow design

 

42.	_____ provides a cross-sectional overview of the static relationships between individuals and units that create the outputs. A. Work-flow analysis   B. Organization structure   C. Work-flow evaluation   D. Organizational dynamics   E. Work-flow design

 

43.	When decision-making authority resides at the top of the organizational chart as opposed to being distributed throughout lower levels, an organization has a _____ decision-making structure. A. divisional   B. democratic   C. centralized   D. collective   E. distributed

 

44.	Units that are a part of the _____ structure act almost as separate, self-sufficient, semi-autonomous organizations. A. mechanistic   B. divisional   C. functional   D. centralized   E. bureaucratic

 

45.	Which of the following structures typically has employees that have a weak conceptualization of the organization’s overall mission? A. Mechanistic structure   B. Divisional structure   C. Modular structure   D. Network structure   E. Functional structure

 

46.

Divisional structures tend to be more flexible and innovative because of A. their work-flow focus.   B. the preference employees have for centralized decision-making.   C. their proximity to a heterogeneous customer base.   D. the high level of centralization in the structure.   E. the tendency to ignore opportunities.

 

47.	Divisional structures are more appropriate than functional structures when A. demand can be well anticipated.   B. the environment is stable and predictable.   C. flexible responsiveness is required.   D. the organization competes on costs.   E. the consumer base is heterogeneous.

 

48.	Functional structures are more appropriate than divisional structures when A. the environment is unstable.   B. it is difficult to anticipate the demand.   C. coordination requirements between jobs are inconsistent.   D. the organization competes on costs.   E. the environment is unpredictable.

 

49.	Self-cannibalization is most likely to happen in _____ structures. A. functional   B. divisional   C. centralized   D. bureaucratic   E. mechanistic

 

50.	Which of the following is a drawback of a functional structure? A. Inability to support cost competency   B. Cascading effect of errors   C. Redundancy across units   D. Low levels of centralization   E. Self-cannibalization

 

51.

In which of the following circumstances will a functional structure be more appropriate for an organization? A. When the environment is unstable   B. When demand for the resources can be well anticipated   C. When the organization competes on differentiation   D. When coordination requirements keep changing   E. When innovation is the primary focus of the organization

 

52.

In which of the following circumstances will a divisional structure be more appropriate for an organization? A. When the environment is stable   B. When resources can be well anticipated   C. When the organization competes on costs   D. When coordination requirements are consistent   E. When the organization competes on differentiation

 

53.

When compared to divisional structures, managers in functional and centralized structures A. need to be more experienced.   B. are more sensitive to individual differences between workers.   C. tend to think of fairness in terms of rules and procedures.   D. need to be high in cognitive ability.   E. equate outcomes with fairness.

 

54.	Identifying the most qualified applicants for employment is a part of _____. A. career planning   B. human resource planning   C. training   D. selection   E. job evaluation

 

55.	_____ entails matching an individual’s skills and aspirations with opportunities that are or may become available in the organization. A. Human resource planning   B. Work-flow analysis   C. Performance evaluation   D. Training   E. Career planning

 

56.	_____ is the process of assessing the relative dollar value of each job to the organization to set up internally equitable pay structures. A. Performance appraisal   B. Recruitment   C. Job evaluation   D. Work redesign   E. Career planning

 

57.	Which of the following includes a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that a job entails? A. Job specification   B. Job description   C. Job standardization   D. Job satisfaction   E. Job evaluation

 

58.	Which of the following is a part of a job description and can be observed in employees’ actions? A. Knowledge   B. Skills   C. Abilities   D. Responsibilities   E. Persistence

 

59.	A job description list would include the _____ that the particular job entails. A. knowledge   B. abilities   C. skills   D. motivation   E. duties

 

60.	Which of the following includes the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics that an individual must have to perform a job? A. Job specification   B. Job description   C. Job standardization   D. Job satisfaction   E. Job evaluation

 

61.	The factual or procedural information that is necessary for successfully performing a task is called _____. A. aptitude   B. ability   C. skill   D. persistence   E. knowledge

 

62.	Who among the following is likely to be the best source for the most accurate information about the time spent on various tasks for job analysis? A. Supervisors   B. Incumbents   C. Customers   D. Subordinates   E. Quality analysts

 

63.	Which of the following sources is most appropriate for providing accurate information regarding the importance of job duties? A. Supervisors   B. Incumbents   C. Customers   D. Subordinates   E. External job analysts

 

64.	When it comes to examining and understanding skill levels for a particular job, _____ may be the best source. A. external job analysts   B. supervisors   C. job incumbents   D. in-house quality analysts   E. internal efficiency experts

 

65.	The _____ section in a Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) focuses on planning and information-processing activities. A. mental processes   B. information input   C. work output   D. job context   E. relationship analysis

 

66.	The _____ section in a Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) focuses on the physical activities, tools, and devices used by the worker to perform the job. A. mental process   B. information input   C. work output   D. job context   E. data input

 

67.	Which of the following was replaced by the Occupational Information Network (O*NET)? A. Position Analysis Questionnaire   B. General Aptitude Test Battery   C. Dictionary of Occupational Titles   D. Workforce Learning Link   E. Work Profiling System

 

68.

Which of the following is true about O*NET? A. It is a private job-listing index that employers can use free of cost.   B. It uses a common language that generalizes job specifications across various occupations.   C. It relies exclusively on fixed job titles.   D. It relies exclusively on narrow task descriptions.   E. It is beneficial only for employers, not job seekers.

 

69.	The most common source of error in the job analysis process results from job descriptions being _____. A. outdated   B. narrow   C. untested   D. vague   E. elaborate