Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition By Betty Ciesla – Test Bank

 

 

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Sample Test

Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____     1.            The erythrocyte stage that marks the beginning of hemoglobinization is called:

1.    Basophilic normoblast

2.    Polychromatophilic normoblast

3.    Orthochromic normoblast

4.    Pronormoblast

 

 

____     2.            One of the key morphological features of the nucleated red cell stages is:

1.    Basophilic cytoplasm through every stage of maturation

2.    Granules in the cytoplasm

3.    A round nucleus

4.    An increase in size as the cell matures

 

 

____     3.            The red cell protein that is responsible for deformability and flexibility of the red cell is:

1.    Spectrin

2.    Glycophorin

3.    Glycine

4.    EPO

 

 

____     4.            Increased plasma cholesterol may lead to the development of which of these abnormal red cell morphologies?

1.    Spherocytes

2.    Target cells

3.    Microcytes

4.    Helmet cells

 

 

____     5.            Which of the following RBC pathways is responsible for providing 90% of the cellular ATP for red cell metabolism?

1.    Embden-Meyerhof pathway

2.    Methemoglobin reductase pathway

3.    Rapoport-Luebering pathway

4.    Hexose monophosphate shunt

 

 

____     6.            The hemoglobin molecule consists of:

1.    One heme molecule, one globin chain

2.    One heme molecule, four globin chains

3.    Two heme molecules, two globin chains

4.    Four heme molecules, four globin chains

 

 

____     7.            The basic pathophysiology of the thalassemic conditions is a/an:

1.    Decreased or absent globin chain synthesis

2.    Absence of iron absorption

3.    Failure to incorporate iron into the pronormoblast

4.    Side effect of iron overload

 

 

____     8.            Asynchrony in the bone marrow is defined as the:

1.    Presence of nucleoli throughout each maturation phase

2.    Presence of extremely basophilic cytoplasm in all precursors

3.    Lack of nuclear development in precursor cells

4.    Nuclear development and hemoglobin development that is unbalanced

 

 

____     9.            Polychromatophilic macrocytes in the peripheral smear are most likely:

1.    Siderocytes

2.    Reticulocytes

3.    Spherocytes

4.    Pappenheimer bodies

 

 

____     10.          The red cell inclusion derived from denatured hemoglobin are:

1.    Howell-Jolly bodies

2.    Pappenheimer bodies

3.    Heinz bodies

4.    Siderotic granules

 

 

____     11.          The degree of effective erythropoietic activity in any hematological disorder is most readily assessed by a/an:

1.    Red cell count

2.    Reticulocyte count

3.    M:E ratio

4.    Hemoglobin determination

 

 

____     12.          When hemolysis is produced by the intravascular fragmentation of red cells, which red cell morphology will be produced?

1.    Spherocytes

2.    Macrocytes

3.    Acanthocytes

4.    Schistocytes

 

 

____     13.          Most hypochromic cells will have an MCHC that is:

1.    Greater than 36%

2.    Less than 30%

3.    Greater than 27%

4.    Less than 27%

 

 

____     14.          Reversible sickled cells are described as having a:

1.    Crescent shape with one pointed projection

2.    Crescent shape with two pointed projections

3.    Half-moon shape with rounded ends

4.    Half-moon shape with pointed projection

 

 

____     15.          The last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation is the:

1.    Pronormoblast

2.    Orthochromic normoblast

3.    Polychromatophilic normoblast

4.    Basophilic normoblast

 

 

____     16.          Red cell inclusions that are remnants of DNA are termed:

1.    Cabot rings

2.    Howell Jolly bodies

3.    Heinz bodies

4.    Pappenheimer bodies

 

 

____     17.          From each pronormoblast precursor cell, _____ mature red blood cells are produced.

1.    4

2.    8

3.    12

4.    16

 

 

____     18.          Pappenheimer bodies are composed of:

1.    Iron

2.    Denatured hemoglobin

3.    DNA

4.    RNA

 

 

 

 

____     19.          Describe the hemoglobin content of the cell at the end of the pointer.

1.    Normochromic

2.    Hypochromic

3.    Polychromatophilic

4.    Hyperchromic

 

 

 

 

____     20.          Identify the cell at the end of the pointer.

1.    Spherocyte

2.    Schistocyte

3.    Acanthocyte

4.    Normocyte

 

 

 

 

____     21.          Identify the cell at the end of the pointers.

1.    Reticulocyte

2.    Spherocyte

3.    Sickle cell

4.    Target cell

 

 

 

 

____     22.          The term used to describe the inclusions seen in the cell at the end of the pointer is (Wright’s stain):

1.    Pappenheimer bodies

2.    Basophilic stippling

3.    Howell Jolly bodies

4.    Siderotic granules

 

 

True/False

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

 

____     23.          The higher the N:C ratio, the more mature the cell.

 

____     24.          The anucleate mature red blood cell has no ability to produce protein.

 

Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology

Answer Section

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1.    ANS:      B             PTS:       1

 

2.    ANS:      C             PTS:       1

 

3.    ANS:      A             PTS:       1

 

4.    ANS:      B             PTS:       1

 

5.    ANS:      A             PTS:       1

 

6.    ANS:      D             PTS:       1

 

7.    ANS:      A             PTS:       1

 

8.    ANS:      D             PTS:       1

 

9.    ANS:      B             PTS:       1

 

10.  ANS:      C             PTS:       1

 

11.  ANS:      B             PTS:       1

 

12.  ANS:      D             PTS:       1

 

13.  ANS:      B             PTS:       1

 

14.  ANS:      C             PTS:       1

 

15.  ANS:      B             PTS:       1

 

16.  ANS:      B             PTS:       1

 

17.  ANS:      D             PTS:       1

 

18.  ANS:      A             PTS:       1

 

19.  ANS:      C             PTS:       1

 

20.  ANS:      A             PTS:       1

 

21.  ANS:      D             PTS:       1

 

22.  ANS:      B             PTS:       1

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

23.  ANS:      F              PTS:       1

 

24.  ANS:      T              PTS:       1

 

Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____    1.   What percentage of hemoglobin is synthesized in the reticulocyte stage?

a.

65%

b.

95%

c.

35%

d.

45%

 

 

____    2.   Epsilon and zeta chains are part of which of the following hemoglobins?

a.

Hemoglobin Portland

b.

Hemoglobin F

c.

Hemoglobin A

d.

Hemoglobin A2

 

 

____    3.   Fetal hemoglobin consists of which of the following chains?

a.

a2b2

b.

a2g2

c.

a2d2

d.

a2e2

 

 

____    4.   The hemoglobin molecule will either hold onto or release oxygen depending on the:

a.

Amount of alpha or beta chains

b.

Relationship between the pulmonary and venous circulations

c.

Viscosity of the blood

d.

M:E ratio

 

 

____    5.   Which of the following abnormal hemoglobins will result in a cyanotic condition?

a.

Sulfhemoglobin

b.

Cyanmethemoglobin

c.

Hemoglobin F

d.

Hemoglobin M

 

 

____    6.   What is the term used to define the process by which the bone marrow responds to anemia-induced stress?

a.

Ineffective erythropoiesis

b.

Aplastic anemia

c.

Erythroid hyperplasia

d.

Medullary erythropoiesis

 

 

____    7.   Which of the following factors will result in an immediate increase in oxygen delivery to the tissues?

a.

Increased pH

b.

Increased altitude

c.

Increased 2,3-DPG

d.

Increased carboxyhemoglobin

 

 

____    8.   How many genes are responsible for the productions of alpha chains?

a.

Two

b.

One

c.

Three

d.

Four

 

 

____    9.   Which of the following clinical conditions is a definitive sign of intravascular lysis?

a.

Bilirubinemia

b.

Decreased RBC count

c.

Hemoglobinuria

d.

Elevated LDH

 

 

____  10.   Which organ(s) is the most affected during extravascular lysis?

a.

Liver and spleen

b.

Kidney

c.

Pancreas

d.

Heart

 

 

____  11.   Each hemoglobin molecule consists of ____ heme structures.

a.

two

b.

four

c.

six

d.

eight

 

 

____  12.   Physiologic conditions in the body that can decrease hemoglobin’s oxygen affinity include:

a.

Increased pH

b.

Decreased 2,3-DPG

c.

Increased body temp

d.

The presence of abnormal hemoglobins

 

 

____  13.   When iron is present in an oxidized state, as Fe+3 or ferric iron, the resulting hemoglobin is known as:

a.

Methemoglobin

b.

Carboxyhemoglobin

c.

Sulfhemoglobin

d.

Deoxyhemoglobin

 

 

____  14.   ________ may be seen in intravascular hemolysis but not in extravascular hemolysis.

a.

Hemoglobinuria

b.

Splenomegaly

c.

Increased LDH

d.

Elevated serum bilirubin

 

 

____  15.   Intrinsic red cell defects that can lead to hemolysis include:

a.

Environmental effects

b.

Inherited deficiencies

c.

A shift in pH

d.

A decrease in G6PD

 

 

____  16.   Which of the following is not an embryonic hemoglobin?

a.

Hgb Portland

b.

Hgb F

c.

Hgb Gowers I

d.

Hgb Gowers II

 

 

True/False

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

 

____  17.   Hemoglobin begins to be synthesized at the polychromatophilic stage of red cell development.

 

____  18.   Abnormal hemoglobins have a lower affinity for oxygen.

 

____  19.   90% of in vivo hemolysis is intravascular.

 

____  20.   Oxygen delivery is the primary purpose of hemoglobin.

 

 

Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis

Answer Section

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1.    ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

2.    ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

3.    ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

4.    ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

5.    ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

6.    ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

7.    ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

8.    ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

9.    ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

10.  ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

11.  ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

12.  ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

13.  ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

14.  ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

15.  ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

16.  ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

17.  ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

18.  ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

19.  ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

20.  ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

 

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