General Organic And Biological Chemistry 7th Edition By H. Stephen Stoker – Test Bank

 

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Sample Test

CHAPTER_03_ATOMIC_STRUCTURE_AND_THE_PERIODIC_TABLE     1. Which of the following statements concerning subatomic particles is correct?   a. Four fundamental types exist, all of which are charged.   b. Four fundamental types exist, two of which are charged.   c. Three fundamental types exist, none of which are charged.   d. Three fundamental types exist, two of which are charged.   ANSWER:   d

 

2. Which of the following statements correctly characterizes the subatomic particle called a neutron?   a. Its mass is less than that of an electron.   b. it has a negative charge.   c. its mass is about that same as that of a proton.   d. it contributes 25% of the mass of an atom.   ANSWER:   c

 

3. The nucleus of an atom   a. contains neutrons and electrons   b. has no charge because of the presence of neutrons   c. repels the negatively charged electrons in an atom   d. does not account for a large amount of the total volume of an atom   ANSWER:   d

 

4. An atom contains 33 protons, 35 neutrons and 33 electrons. The atomic number and mass number for this atom are, respectively,   a. 35 and 33 b. 33 and 35   c. 33 and 68 d. 35 and 68   ANSWER:   c

 

5. Which of the following statements is correct for ?   a. contains more electrons than neutrons   b. contains no electrons   c. contains an equal number of neutrons and electrons   d. contains more neutrons than electrons   ANSWER:   a

 

6. The nuclear charge for an atom of is   a. zero b. + 9   c. + 18 d. + 28   ANSWER:   b

 

7. The quantity “A + Z” gives the number of   a. electrons in an atom b. neutrons in an atomic nucleus   c. nucleons in an atomic nucleus d. all subatomic particles in an atom   ANSWER:   d

 

8. Isotopes of a given element   a. have the same mass number but different numbers of protons   b. have different mass numbers but identical numbers of protons   c. have the same atomic number but different chemical properties   d. have the same mass number but different chemical properties   ANSWER:   b

 

9. Chlorine, which exists in nature in two isotopic forms, has an atomic mass of 35.5 amu. This means that:   a. All chlorine atoms have masses of 35.5 amu.   b. More than half of all chlorine atoms have masses of 35.5.   c. 35.5 amu is the upper limit for the mass of a chlorine atom.   d. The mass of one isotope must be lighter than 35.5 amu while the mass of the other isotope is heavier than 35.5 amu.   ANSWER:   d

 

10. Two naturally occurring isotopes exist for the hypothetical element dippium. 25.0 percent of dippium atoms have a relative mass of 17.0 amu and 75.0 percent a relative mass of 21.3 amu. What is the atomic mass of dippium?   a. 18.1 amu b. 19.1 amu   c. 20.2 amu d. 38.3 amu   ANSWER:   c

 

11. The modern periodic table arranges the elements in order of   a. the year of discovery b. decreasing size of the nucleus   c. increasing reactivity with oxygen d. increasing number of protons   ANSWER:   d

 

12. In which of the following pairs of elements are both members of the pair in the same period in the periodic table?   a. Ne and Mg b. Ni and Pd   c. Ca and Se d. K and Rb   ANSWER:   c

 

13. In which of the following pairs of elements are both members of the pair metals?   a. P and O b. Al and Cl   c. Nb and Ar d. Ag and Bi   ANSWER:   d

 

14. The correct electron configuration for 17Cl is   a. 1s22s22p5 b. 1s22s22p63s2   c. 1s22s22p63s23p5 d. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d5   ANSWER:   c

 

15. Which of the following statements is consistent with the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p6?   a. There are six electrons present in a 3p orbital.   b. There are six electrons present in a 3p subshell.   c. There are two electrons present in a 2s shell.   d. There are two electrons total in the second shell.   ANSWER:   b

 

16. After the 4s subshell of an atom is filled with electrons, the next electron added will enter the   a. 3d subshell b. 4p subshell   c. 4d subshell d. 5s subshell   ANSWER:   a

 

17. How many unpaired electrons are present in the orbital diagram for an atom whose electron configuration is 1s22s22p4?   a. 0 b. 1   c. 2 d. 4   ANSWER:   c

 

18. Which of the following statements about a d subshell is correct?   a. It is found only in shells greater than 2.   b. It contains 3 orbitals.   c. It is found only in shells 2 and 3.   d. It is found in all shells greater than 1.   ANSWER:   a

 

19. The elements in group IVA of the periodic table all have electron configurations ending in   a. p2 b. p4   c. d4 d. s2   ANSWER:   a

 

20. Which of the following element-classification pairings is incorrect?   a. O representative element b. Xe noble gas element   c. Cr transition element d. Os inner transition element   ANSWER:   d

 

21. Which of the following statements correctly describes the subatomic particle called a neutron?   a. has a mass slightly less than that of a proton   b. is not found in the nucleus   c. has a positive charge   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   e

 

22. Which of the following statements concerning the nucleus of an atom is correct?   a. It accounts for almost all of the mass of an atom.   b. It is always positively charged.   c. It contains only neutrons.   d. More than one correct response.   e. No correct response.   ANSWER:   d

 

23. Which of the following collections of subatomic particles possesses a net charge of +2?   a. two neutrons and two electrons   b. three protons and one electron   c. three electrons and one proton   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   b

 

24. Which of the following statements is correct for   a. atomic number = 27 and mass number = 14   b. contains 14 protons and 27 neutrons   c. contains an equal number of protons and electrons   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   c

 

25. Tin is element number 50. This means that all tin atoms have   a. an atomic number of 50   b. 50 neutrons in the nucleus   c. a total of 50 subatomic particles in the nucleus   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   a

 

26. Which of the following pairs of atoms, specified in terms of subatomic particle composition, are isotopes?   a. (24p, 24e, 24n) and (25p, 25e, 25n)   b. (24p, 24e, 24n) and (24p, 24e, 28n)   c. (24p, 24e, 28n) and (25p, 25e, 28n)   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   b

 

27. Element A exists in three isotopic forms with masses of 21.0, 25.0 and 26.0 amu, respectively. Element Q also exists in three isotopic forms with masses of 20, 24.0 and 25.0 amu, respectively. It is true that:   a. Element A has a lower atomic mass than element Q since it has the lightest isotope.   b. Elements A and Q have identical atomic masses since the sums of their isotopic masses are equal.   c. Element Q has a higher atomic mass than element A since its atomic masses are closer together.   d. More than one correct response.   e. No correct response.   ANSWER:   e

 

28. Period number and group number in the periodic table are numerically equal for which of the following elements?   a. 13Al   b. 33As   c. 51Sb   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   d

 

29. Which of the following periodic table groups contains three or more nonmetallic elements?   a. IIIA   b. IVA   c. VA   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   c

 

30. Both a number and a letter are used in designating an electron subshell. The letter   a. indicates the shell to which the subshell belongs   b. may be s, p, d, or f   c. gives information about the maximum number of electrons the subshell can contain   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   d

 

31. Which of the following electron configurations corresponds to an element in the same group of the periodic table as the element whose electron configuration is 1s22s22p5?   a. 1s22s22p4   b. 1s22s22p6   c. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d5   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   e

 

32. Two unpaired electrons are present in the orbital diagram of which of the following elements?   a. 6C   b. 10Ne   c. 12Mg   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   a

 

33. Which of the following characterizations for the element 23V is correct?   a. a period 4 element   b. electron configuration ends in d3   c. an inner-transition element   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   d

 

34. Which of the following characterizations for the element 52Te is correct?   a. both a representative element and a metal   b. electron configuration involves a partially filled s subshell   c. electron configuration involves a total of 52 electrons   d. more than one correct response   e. no correct response   ANSWER:   c

 

35. Which of the following statements concerning types of elements is correct?   a. There are more noble gas elements than transition elements.   b. There are more s-block elements than d-block elements.   c. There are more nonmetals than metals.   d. More than one correct response.   e. No correct response.   ANSWER:   e

 

36. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status using the choices provided. (1) The number of elements that are metals and nonmetals is approximately equal. (2) The number of orbitals present in an electron subshell is always six. (3) An atom as a whole is electrically neutral because all charged subatomic particles reside in the nucleus.   a. All three statements are true.   b. Two of the three statements are true.   c. Only one of the statements is true.   d. None of the statements is true.   ANSWER:   d

 

37. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status using the choices provided. (1) The shape of an s orbital is always spherical. (2) All naturally occurring atoms of an element must be identical to each other in terms of subatomic particle makeup. (3) The alkaline earth metals are the elements in group IA of the periodic table.   a. All three statements are true.   b. Two of the three statements are true.   c. Only one of the statements is true.   d. None of the statements is true.   ANSWER:   c

 

38. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status using the choices provided. (1) The mass of an atom and the mass of its nucleus are essentially the same. (2) Two of the six electrons present in an atom of carbon are unpaired. (3) The element aluminum is located in the d area of the periodic table.   a. All three statements are true.   b. Two of the three statements are true.   c. Only one of the statements is true.   d. None of the statements is true.   ANSWER:   b

 

39. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status using the choices provided. (1) The sum of the mass number and the atomic number for an atom corresponds to the total number of subatomic particles present in the atom. (2) The element sulfur is both a nonmetal and a representative element. (3) Elements with electron configurations that end in p4 would be found in group VIA of the periodic table.   a. All three statements are true.   b. Two of the three statements are true.   c. Only one of the statements is true.   d. None of the statements is true.   ANSWER:   a

 

40. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status using the choices provided. (1) Electrons occupy the orbitals of a subshell such that each orbital acquires one electron before any orbital acquires a second electron. (2) The nucleus of an atom is always positively charged. (3) Both electrons and protons are massive particles when compared with neutrons.   a. All three statements are true.   b. Two of the three statements are true.   c. Only one of the statements is true.   d. None of the statements is true.   ANSWER:   b

 

41. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status using the choices provided. (1) The maximum number of electrons that can occupy an electron shell is the same as the shell number. (2) A nucleus is the very small dense uncharged center of an atom. (3) The number of inner transition elements is greater than the number of transition elements.   a. All three statements are true.   b. Two of the three statements are true.   c. Only one of the statements is true.   d. None of the statements is true.   ANSWER:   d

 

42. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status using the choices provided. (1) Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in its nucleus. (2) Sufficient information is present on a “standard” periodic table to determine the number of neutrons present in atoms of an element. (3) An atom whose electron configuration is 1s22s22p63s1 contains 12 electrons.   a. All three statements are true.   b. Two of the three statements are true.   c. Only one of the statements is true.   d. None of the statements is true.   ANSWER:   c

 

43. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status using the choices provided. (1) All naturally occurring atoms of an element must have the same mass number. (2) Protons and electrons carry the same amount of charge. (3) An isotope of chlorine with A = 35 and Z = 17 contains more neutrons than protons.   a. All three statements are true.   b. Two of the three statements are true.   c. Only one of the statements is true.   d. None of the statements is true.   ANSWER:   b

 

44. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status using the choices provided. (1) An electron configuration specifies subshell occupancy for electrons. (2) The atomic number is double the mass number for atoms that contain an equal number of protons and neutrons. (3) All occupied orbitals are completely filled in atoms of the element neon, which contains a total of 12 electrons.   a. All three statements are true.   b. Two of the three statements are true.   c. Only one of the statements is true.   d. None of the statements is true.   ANSWER:   c

 

45. Characterize EACH of the following statements as being TRUE or FALSE and then indicate the collective true-false status using the choices provided. (1) All of the major minerals in the human body are metals. (2) Iron is the most abundant transition metal in the human body. (3) Deuterium is an isotope of hydrogen in which two protons are present.   a. All three statements are true.   b. Two of the three statements are true.   c. Only one of the statements is true.   d. None of the statements is true.   ANSWER:   c

 

46. Choose the correct atom that has an atomic number of 17.   a. b.   c. d.   ANSWER:   d

 

47. Choose the correct atom that has a mass number of 17.   a. b.   c. d.   ANSWER:   c

 

48. Choose the correct atom that has a nuclear charge of +17   a. b.   c. d.   ANSWER:   d

 

49. Choose the correct atom that has an equal number of protons, neutrons, and electrons.   a. b.   c. d.   ANSWER:   b

 

50. Choose the correct atom that has fewer neutrons than electrons.   a. b.   c. d.   ANSWER:   c

 

51. Choose the appropriate pair of atoms that contain the same number of protons.   a. b.   c. d.   ANSWER:   d

 

52. Choose the appropriate pair of atoms that contain the same number of electrons.   a. b.   c. d.   ANSWER:   d

 

53. Choose the appropriate pair of atoms that contain the same number of neutrons.   a. b.   c. d.   ANSWER:   c

 

54. Choose the appropriate pair of atoms that contain the same number of nucleons.   a. b.   c. d.   ANSWER:   a

 

55. Choose the appropriate pair of atoms that contain the same number of subatomic particles.   a. b.   c. d.   ANSWER:   b

 

56. Choose the appropriate electron configuration for an element that has five completely filled subshells.   a. 1s22s22p63s23p6 b. 1s22s22p63s23p4   c. 1s22s22p63s1 d. 1s22s22p5   ANSWER:   a

 

57. Choose the appropriate electron configuration for an element whose third shell contains six electrons.   a. 1s22s22p63s23p6 b. 1s22s22p63s23p4   c. 1s22s22p63s1 d. 1s22s22p5   ANSWER:   b

 

58. Choose the appropriate electron configuration for an element that has electrons in six orbitals.   a. 1s22s22p63s23p6 b. 1s22s22p63s23p4   c. 1s22s22p63s1 d. 1s22s22p5   ANSWER:   c

 

59. Choose the appropriate electron configuration for an element that has two unpaired electrons.   a. 1s22s22p63s23p6 b. 1s22s22p63s23p4   c. 1s22s22p63s1 d. 1s22s22p5   ANSWER:   b

 

60. Choose the appropriate electron configuration for an element with no unpaired electrons.   a. 1s22s22p63s23p6 b. 1s22s22p63s23p4   c. 1s22s22p63s1 d. 1s22s22p5   ANSWER:   a

 

61. Choose an appropriate pair of elements that are in the same period of the periodic table.   a. 37Rb and 38Sr b. 7N and 82Pb   c. 9F and 17Cl d. 42Mo and 75Re   ANSWER:   a

 

62. Choose an appropriate pair of elements that are in the same group of the periodic table.   a. 37Rb and 38Sr b. 7N and 82Pb   c. 9F and 17Cl d. 42Mo and 75Re   ANSWER:   c

 

63. Choose an appropriate pair of elements that have similar chemical properties.   a. 37Rb and 38Sr b. 7N and 82Pb   c. 9F and 17Cl d. 42Mo and 75Re   ANSWER:   c

 

64. Choose an appropriate pair of elements that are in the d area of the periodic table.   a. 37Rb and 38Sr b. 7N and 82Pb   c. 9F and 17Cl d. 42Mo and 75Re   ANSWER:   d

 

65. Choose an appropriate pair of elements that have electron configurations ending in p5.   a. 37Rb and 38Sr b. 7N and 82Pb   c. 9F and 17Cl d. 42Mo and 75Re   ANSWER:   c

 

66. Which of the following elements is a transition element?   a. 9F b. 50Sn   c. 79Au d. 92U   ANSWER:   c

 

67. Which of the following elements is an inner-transition element?   a. 9F b. 50Sn   c. 79Au d. 92U   ANSWER:   d

 

68. Which of the following elements is a halogen?   a. 9F b. 50Sn   c. 79Au d. 92U   ANSWER:   a

 

69. Which of the following elements is both a metal and a representative element?   a. 9F b. 50Sn   c. 79Au d. 92U   ANSWER:   b

 

70. Which of the following elements is both a nonmetal and a representative element?   a. 9F b. 50Sn   c. 79Au d. 92U   ANSWER:   a

 

CHAPTER_05_CHEMICAL_BONDING_THE_COVALENT_BOND_MODEL     1. Which of the following statements contrasting covalent bonds and ionic bonds is correct?   a. Covalent bonds usually involve two nonmetals and ionic bonds usually involve two metals.   b. Covalent bonds usually involve two metals and ionic bonds usually involve a metal and a nonmetal.   c. Covalent bonds usually involve a metal and a nonmetal and ionic bonds usually involve two nonmetals.   d. Covalent bonds usually involve two nonmetals and ionic bonds usually involve a metal and a nonmetal.   ANSWER:   d

 

2. Which of the following molecular compounds would have a Lewis structure that contains 10 electron dots?   a. HCN b. H2O   c. NH3 d. CO2   ANSWER:   a

 

3. In which of the following molecular compounds are all the bonds single bonds?   a. CS2 b. CS   c. NBr3 d. O2   ANSWER:   c

 

4. The total number of nonbonding electron pairs present in the Lewis structure of SiH4 is   a. zero b. one   c. two d. four   ANSWER:   a

 

5. Which of the following statements concerning double covalent bonds is correct?   a. They are found only in molecules that contain P or atoms in the third period or higher.   b. They are only found in molecules that contain large atoms that can effectively overlap with each other.   c. They occur only between atoms containing 2 valence electrons.   d. They always involve the sharing of 4 electrons.   ANSWER:   d

 

6. Which of the following statements concerning coordinate covalent bonds is correct?   a. One of the atoms involved must be a metal and the other a nonmetal.   b. Both atoms involved in the bond contribute three electrons to the bond.   c. Once formed, they are indistinguishable from any other covalent bond.   d. They occur only in molecules where all bonds are single bonds.   ANSWER:   c

 

7. In which of the following molecules is a coordinate covalent bond present?   a. ​H–CºN b. O=C=O   c. ​NºN d. NºN–O​   ANSWER:   d

 

8. The Lewis structure for the polyatomic ion NO2+ contains   a. two double bonds and eight nonbonding electrons   b. one double bond, one single bond, and twelve nonbonding electrons   c. two single bonds and twelve nonbonding electrons   d. two triple bonds and four nonbonding electrons   ANSWER:   a

 

9. For which of the following pairs of elements would the compound formed between them most likely be a molecular compound?   a. Li and Br b. Ba and O   c. N and S d. Cs and F   ANSWER:   c

 

10. Which of the following compounds contains both ionic and covalent bonds?   a. SiO2 b. LiI   c. LiCN d. PCl3   ANSWER:   c

 

11. VSEPR theory predicts that the geometry of the AsH3 molecule is   a. linear b. trigonal planar   c. trigonal pyramidal d. tetrahedral   ANSWER:   b

 

12. What is the geometry of the molecular compound formed by the reaction of sulfur with hydrogen?   a. linear b. angular   c. trigonal planar d. tetrahedral   ANSWER:   b

 

13. Which of the following sets of elements is arranged in order of decreasing electronegativity?   a. O, S, As b. Cl, B, F   c. Br, Cl, P d. Be, C, O   ANSWER:   a

 

14. Electronegativity is a concept that is useful along with other concepts in   a. predicting the polarity of a bond   b. deciding how many electrons are involved in a bond   c. formulating a statement of the octet rule   d. determining the charge on a polyatomic ion   ANSWER:   a

 

15. In which of the following bonds is the bond polarity incorrect?   a. b.   c. d.   ANSWER:   d

 

16. Given the following electronegativities: Na = 0.9, H = 2.1, Cl = 3.0 which of the following statements is true?   a. H2, Cl2, and HCl are polar covalent molecules.   b. NaCl is a polar covalent compound and HCl is an ionic compound.   c. HCl is a nonpolar covalent compound and Cl2 is a polar covalent molecule.   d. Cl2 is a nonpolar covalent molecule and HCl is a polar covalent molecule.   ANSWER:   d

 

17. Which of the following diatomic molecules contains the bond of greatest polarity?   a. N2 b. Cl2   c. ClI d. BrF   ANSWER:   d

 

18. Which of the following linear molecules is a nonpolar molecule containing polar bonds?   a. ​ H–CºN ​ b. O=C=O   c. H–Cl d. ​ NºN ​   ANSWER:   b

 

19. Which of the following is a molecular compound that contains five atoms per molecule?   a. germanium tetrabromide b. dinitrogen monoxide   c. dinitrogen pentoxide d. nitrogen diselenide   ANSWER:   a

 

20. The correct name for the compound H2Te is   a. hydrogen telluride b. dihydrogen telluride   c. dihydrogen monotelluride d. hydrogen monotelluride   ANSWER:   a